Preparing for Jamb or any other exam can be challenging, but one of the best ways to do well is by studying past questions. Past exam questions give you a good idea of what to expect, how the questions are structured, and the topics that are often covered. This helps you feel more confident and ready for the exam.
Why Studying Past Questions Matters
Looking at past questions, especially Jamb past questions is like getting a preview of the exam. It shows you the types of questions that come up frequently and helps you understand what areas to focus on. By practicing with these questions, you can get used to the exam format and improve your chances of doing well.
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Benefits of Studying Past Questions
- Builds Confidence: Working through past questions helps you feel more prepared. You won’t be as nervous when you see similar questions in the exam because you’ve seen them before.
- Improves Time Management: Practicing past questions teaches you how to manage your time during the exam. You’ll know how long to spend on each question to make sure you finish on time.
- Identifies Key Topics: Past questions often highlight important topics that are likely to come up again. This allows you to focus your study on the areas that matter most.
- Enhances Problem-Solving Skills: Regular practice helps you get better at solving different types of questions. You’ll learn the best ways to answer them quickly and correctly.
- Reduces Surprises: Familiarity with past questions means fewer surprises on exam day. You’ll know what to expect, which helps reduce exam stress.
At Infornova, we know how important past questions are for exam preparation. That’s why we don’t just provide the questions; we also give you the correct answers. This way, you can practice and check your answers right away, helping you understand what you did right and where you need to improve.
Jamb Biology Past Questions And Answers
The correct answers for each question are highlighted.
1. The gall bladder of a mammal has a duct connected to the:
A. duodenum
B. liver
C. pancreas
D. small intestine
2. The opening of the stoma is controlled by the:
A. presence of guard cells
B. decrease in solute concentration in the guard cells
C. increase in solute concentration in the guard cells
D. presence of a pore
3. Yam is used in this set-up because it:
A. acts as a semi-permeable membrane
B. acts as a storage organ
C. is permeable to the salt solution
D. is a plant material
4. Which of the following results is expected if the set-up is left for several hours?
A. Movement of water from the salt solution
B. Decrease in the size of the yam
C. Movement of the salt solution into the water
D. Decrease in the volume of water inside the yam
5. The eggs of birds contain relatively larger quantities of yolk than those of amphibians and reptiles because:
A. embryonic development is longer in birds
B. birds lay shelled eggs
C. birds are generally bigger in size
D. those of birds are fertilized internally
6. In the internal structure of plants, a wide pith in the center is common to:
A. dicot root and monocot stems
B. dicot stems and monocot stems
C. dicot stem and monocot roots
D. dicot roots and monocot roots
7. If a nursing mother is not producing enough milk, her hormonal system is probably deficient in:
A. testosterone
B. thyroxin
C. insulin
D. prolactin
8. The type of joint between adjacent bones in the part labeled II is the:
A. hinge joint
B. suture joint
C. sliding joint
D. ball-and-socket joint
9. The bones labeled II are called:
A. thoracic vertebrae
B. lumbar vertebrae
C. cervical vertebrae
D. sacral vertebrae
10. The breakdown of fats and oils into simpler absorbable compounds is catalyzed by the group of enzymes called:
A. peptidases
B. amylases
C. lipases
D. hydrolases
11. The two key cations involved in the action potential of nervous transmissions are:
A. Mg²⁺ and K⁺
B. Na⁺ and Fe²⁺
C. Fe²⁺ and Mg²⁺
D. Na⁺ and K⁺
12. The part labeled II is the:
A. anther
B. style
C. filament
D. stigma
13. The process of pollination involves the transfer of pollens from:
A. III to IV
B. IV to I
C. II to III
D. I to II
14. The anaerobic fermentation of a glucose molecule yields:
A. pyruvic acid and alcohol
B. 38 ATP molecules
C. water and carbon (IV) oxide
D. 2 ATP molecules and alcohol
15. The function of the part labeled III is to:
A. produce oil for the skin
B. carry blood and nitrogenous waste
C. contract to pull the hair erect
D. conduct nervous impulses
16. The sweat gland is the structure labeled:
A. IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
17. The type of reproduction that is common to both Hydra and yeast is:
A. grafting
B. budding
C. conjugation
D. binary fission
18. Epigeal germination of a seed is characterized by:
A. lack of growth of the hypocotyls
B. more rapid elongation of the hypocotyls than the epicotyl
C. more rapid elongation of the epicotyl than the hypocotyl
D. equal growth rate of both the hypocotyl and epicotyl
19. All living cells require water because it:
A. is a medium that neutralizes acids in cells
B. is the main source of energy for the cells
C. prevents the development of diseases in cells
D. is a medium for all metabolic reactions
20. The surface of an alveolus in a mammal is well-supplied with tiny blood vessels known as:
A. capillaries
B. arteries
C. arterioles
D. venules
21. Nervous control differs from hormonal control in that the former:
A. is a slower process
B. involves only chemical transmission
C. has no specific pathway
D. produces short-term changes
22. Identical twins inherit their genes from:
A. one egg and two sperms
B. two eggs and a sperm
C. the same egg and sperm
D. different eggs and sperms
23. Paternity disputes can most accurately be resolved through the use of:
A. DNA analysis
B. fingerprinting
C. tongue-rolling
D. blood group typing
24. Sex-linked genes are located on:
A. X- and Y-chromosomes
B. homologous chromosomes
C. X-chromosomes
D. Y-chromosome
25. In a Mendelian cross of red and white varieties of the four o’clock plant, the F₁ generation expresses incomplete dominance by having flowers which are:
A. multicolored
B. pink
C. red
D. white
26. Insects are considered the most successful among the invertebrates because they:
A. survive in various environmental conditions
B. possess the ability to change their forms
C. possess exoskeletons
D. have wings for flight
27. The absence of special food and water-conducting systems restricts the body size in:
A. the bryophytes and the pteridophytes
B. the thallophytes and the pteridophytes
C. liverworts, mosses, and ferns
D. algae, liverworts, and mosses
28. A peculiar characteristic of mammals is that they:
A. have sebaceous glands
B. have teeth
C. are warm-blooded
D. have lungs
29. The rods in the retina of the eye are examples of:
A. organs
B. cells
C. systems
D. tissues
30. The larval stage of a mosquito is called:
A. caterpillar
B. maggot
C. wriggler
D. grub
31. The most common characteristic of the fungal hyphae is the possession of:
A. cell-like partitions formed by cross-walls
B. cell-like compartments with one nucleus each
C. a multicellular mycelium in the substrate
D. cell walls that are both rigid and chitinous
32. The part labeled II is responsible for:
A. respiration
B. protein synthesis
C. excretion
D. photosynthesis
33. The endoplasmic reticulum is represented by the part labeled:
A. III
B. VI
C. I
D. II
34. The function of the long-winged reproductives in a termite colony is to:
A. protect the young
B. participate in swarming
C. feed the young
D. disperse the population
35. A plant-like feature in Euglena is the:
A. large vacuole
B. gullet
C. pellicle
D. pigment spot
36. Which of the following is an example of intraspecific competition?
A. Yam and potato shoots growing out through the same window
B. A lizard and an ant-eater chasing an insect
C. A worker termite and a soldier in a limited space
D. A hawk and an eagle targeting the same chicken
37. The spots and stripes of the leopard and tiger are examples of:
A. warning coloration
B. aggressive resemblance
C. cryptic coloration
D. aposematic coloration
38. The optimum temperature of the enzyme involved in photosynthesis is:
A. 37°C
B. 45°C
C. 20°C
D. 25°C
39. The division of the nucleus into two daughter nuclei is termed:
A. karyokinesis
B. cytokinesis
C. amitosis
D. chromokinesis
40. The type of nutrition associated with Rhizopus is:
A. holozoic
B. autotrophic
C. saprophytic
D. parasitic
41. The ability of Planaria to regenerate into new individuals is a form of:
A. parthenogenesis
B. asexual reproduction
C. autotomy
D. vegetative reproduction
42. A sudden change in a gene structure or chromosome number in an organism is known as:
A. linkage
B. hybridization
C. crossing over
D. mutation
43. One of the effects of deforestation is:
A. increased carbon dioxide output
B. increased rainfall
C. soil salinity
D. decreased fertility
44. Which of the following is not an effect of the depletion of the ozone layer?
A. Skin cancer
B. Respiratory diseases
C. Genetic disorder
D. Cataract
45. The part of a flower responsible for the production of male gametes is the:
A. carpel
B. anther
C. stigma
D. ovary
46. The association between bacteria and leguminous plants is referred to as:
A. epiphytism
B. saprophytism
C. symbiosis
D. parasitism
47. The role of magnesium in plants is primarily in the:
A. formation of proteins
B. synthesis of chlorophyll
C. development of roots
D. formation of fruit
48. A solution is said to be hypertonic if it:
A. has a higher concentration than the cell sap
B. is equal in concentration to the cell sap
C. has no effect on the cell
D. has a lower concentration than the cell sap
49. The unique feature of mammalian red blood cells is the absence of:
A. nuclei
B. hemoglobin
C. mitochondria
D. cell membrane
50. Which of the following statements is correct about respiration?
A. Anaerobic respiration yields more energy than aerobic respiration
B. Anaerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria
C. Respiration is a process that produces energy
D. Oxygen is not required for aerobic respiration
Conclusion
In summary, studying Jamb past questions and answers is a smart way to prepare for exams. It helps you understand the exam format, manage your time better, and focus on key topics. With Infornova’s collection of past questions and answers, you’ll be well-prepared and confident on exam day
